10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.
The CANPC exam has 100 questions and runs 4 hours.
These 10 free CANPC questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Certified Anesthesia and Pain Management Coder blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.
Domain 1: Selecting the appropriate CPT® codes for surgical cases and cross walking to the appropriate anesthesia code
Question 1
Neuraxial labor analgesia is started for a planned vaginal delivery. The patient subsequently requires cesarean delivery, and uncontrolled uterine bleeding necessitates hysterectomy during the same operation. The same anesthesiologist continues care without interruption. Choose the 2026 anesthesia-code combination that captures the completed obstetric course.
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Correct answer: D - 01967 and 01969
Question 2
Both knees are replaced during one uninterrupted spinal anesthetic for a Medicare beneficiary. The surgeon reports CPT 27447 for each knee. Which primary anesthesia code and base-value treatment should the anesthesiologist use?
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Correct answer: C - 01402, with one applicable base value
Domain 2: Proper use of modifiers common for anesthesia cases
Question 3
An anesthesiologist medically directs three simultaneous CRNA anesthetics. One patient has Medicare; the other two have commercial insurance. The physician's participation satisfies every Medicare medical-direction requirement for all three cases, including the required induction and emergence participation. On the Medicare case, which provider-role modifiers belong on the anesthesiologist's and CRNA's claims, respectively?
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Correct answer: B - QK and QX
Domain 3: Determining time units and total units for anesthesia cases
Question 4
A September 2026 Medicare anesthesia record shows:
07:20-07:32: Separately reportable postoperative-pain block, before the surgical anesthetic.
07:40: Anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for anesthesia in the operating room and remains continuously in attendance.
07:52-09:02: Surgical procedure.
09:18: Safe handoff to postoperative care; anesthesia services end.
The anesthesia code has 7 base units. How many total anesthesia units enter the allowance calculation before any provider-share adjustment?
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Correct answer: B - 13.5 units
Domain 4: Rules and regulations governing Medicare billing - including incident to, teaching situations, shared visits, consultations, and global surgery
Question 5
A Medicare audit flags two overlapping resident anesthesia cases because both identify the same teaching anesthesiologist. The records establish that the critical portions, including induction and emergence, did not overlap; the attending was present for each and immediately available throughout both procedures. There were no other concurrent cases. What is the correct disposition of the audit flag?
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Correct answer: D - Report AA and GC for each case at the regular anesthesia fee-schedule rate.
Domain 5: Coding per National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) policy, ICD-10-CM, CPT®, and modifiers
Question 6
Before a knee operation, an anesthesiologist performs a single-injection femoral block at the surgeon's documented request for postoperative pain beyond the surgeon's ability to manage. The general anesthetic is independent of the block. Block time is excluded from anesthesia time; ultrasound images and a separate procedure report are retained. On the 2026 Medicare claim, which additional service is reportable?
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Correct answer: A - 64447-XU, without a separate ultrasound-guidance code
Question 7
A patient with active metastatic cancer attends a pain clinic solely for adjustment of analgesic treatment. The physician documents that the pain is caused by the malignancy and has persisted for eight months. No treatment directed at the cancer itself is provided at this encounter. Select the first-listed diagnosis for today's pain-management claim.
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Correct answer: A - G89.3 - Neoplasm-related pain
Question 8
A procedure note describes fluoroscopic needle placement through the right L4-L5 foramen to the exiting L4 nerve root, followed by anesthetic/steroid injection after contrast confirmation. The process is repeated through the right L5-S1 foramen for the L5 root during the same session. No infusion catheter is left in place. What 2026 procedure-code reporting matches this note?
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Correct answer: D - 64483 and 64484, with imaging included
Domain 6: Understanding of evaluation and management (E/M) guidelines for new and established office and outpatient services, as well as other E/M services such as consultations and hospital services
Question 9
At a different office location of the same group, a pain specialist sees a patient who received professional care from another physician of the exact same specialty and subspecialty 18 months ago. The only problem addressed is one chronic pain condition that remains at its documented treatment goal. The physician assesses medication efficacy and tolerance and renews the prescription unchanged. There are no qualifying data activities, and no total E/M time is recorded. Using MDM rather than time, how should this 2026 visit be coded?
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Correct answer: C - 99213
Domain 8: Anatomy and physiology
Question 10
Review of an 8-year-old's MRI anesthesia record identifies an unintended respiratory event during planned moderate sedation. The child stopped responding to speech or light touch but deliberately pushed the examiner's hand away after repeated painful stimulation. Jaw support and brief assisted ventilation were required. Oxygen saturation remained 98% while supplemental oxygen was being delivered. Which conclusion about the respiratory event is supported?
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Correct answer: C - Deep sedation occurred; the normal oxygen saturation did not exclude ventilatory impairment.